Cnit 176 Final Exam

Cnit 176 Final Exam

Final Exam – CNIT 17600 – Summer 2011 Name: _______________________________ Multiple Choice (1 point each) 1. Which of the following is the technological advancement(s) that allowed the 4th generation of computing to begin? a. Vacuum Tubes & Alternating Current Power Systems b. Transistors & Alternating Current Power Systems c. Transistors & Direct Current Power Systems d. Integrated Circuits & VLSI e. None of the Above 2. In the model of modern computing systems, applications that end uses directly interact with are located at which level? a. Level 0 – Digital Logic b. Level 1 – Control . Level 3 – System Software d. Level 5 – High-Level Language e. Level 6 – User 3. In the model of modern computing systems, the physical circuits and gates that actually perform the basic operations the computer are located at which level? a. Level 0 – Digital Logic b. Level 1 – Control c. Level 3 – System Software d. Level 5 – High-Level Language e. Level 6 – User 4. Which of the following components of the central processing unit is responsible for retrieving instructions and then translating those instructions into executable operation codes and operands? a. Arithmetic Logic Unit b.

Control Unit c. Registers d. Program Counter e. None of the Above 5. Which of the following is currently the most popular format for representing signed numbers in computing systems? a. Signed Magnitude b. One’s Complement c. Two’s Complement d. Nine’s Complement e. None of the Above 6. The unsigned 8-bit binary value of 10410 is: a. 1101000 b. 01101000 c. 11010000 d. 10010111 e. None of the above 7. The signed magnitude 8-bit binary value of 10410 is: a. 1101000 b. 01101000 c. 11010000 d. 10010111 e. None of the above 8. What is the value of the two’s complement binary number 10011001? . 153 b. -153 c. -102 d. 103 e. None of the Above 9. Which of the following character codes is the international standard for representing data? a. EBCDIC b. ASCII c. BCD d. Unicode e. All of the Above Inputs x y 00 01 10 11 Output f() 0 0 0 1 Figure 1 – Boolean Logic Truth Table 10. Which of the following Boolean operators defines the truth table described in Figure 1? a. OR b. AND c. NAND d. XNOR e. XOR Inputs x y 00 01 10 11 Output f() 0 1 1 0 Figure 2 – Boolean Logic Truth Table 11. Which of the following Boolean operators defines the truth table described in Figure 2? a. OR . AND c. NAND d. XNOR e. XOR Inputs x y 00 01 10 11 Output f() 1 1 1 0 Figure 3 – Boolean Logic Truth Table 12. Which of the following Boolean operators defines the truth table described in Figure 3? a. OR b. AND c. NAND d. XNOR e. XOR x A y B C D Figure 4 – Digital Decoder Circuit 13. Using Figure 4, which output will be set to a logical 1 when the inputs are x=1 and y=1. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. All of the Above 14. Which of the following is a CPU Instruction Type? a. Data Movement b. Arithmetic Operation c. I/O Instruction d. Boolean Logic Instruction e. All of the Above 15.

Which of the following is an enhancement to the von Neumann architecture to increase the apparent speed of a CPU? a. Resource Conflicts b. Structure Hazards c. Data Dependencies d. Pipelining e. None of the Above 16. Which of the following CPU components is responsible for altering the normal flow of process execution? a. Accumulator b. General Purpose Registers c. ALU d. Control Unit e. None of the Above 17. Which of the following describes the process by which the least significant bits of the address determine which memory bank the data will be stored? a. Low-Order Interleaving b. High-Order Interleaving . Byte Interleaving d. Word Interleaving e. Nibble Interleaving 18. Which of the following is typically implemented using capacitors for storage of bits? a. RAM b. DRAM c. SRAM d. ROM e. All of the above 19. Which of the following is typically implemented using D flip-flops for storage of bits? a. RAM b. DRAM c. SRAM d. ROM e. All of the above 20. Which of the following types of memory is highest in the memory hierarchy discussed in class? a. Main Memory b. L1 Cache c. L2 Cache d. SSD e. None of the Above 21. Which of the following types of memory is highest in the memory hierarchy discussed in class? . Main Memory b. L3 Cache c. L2 Cache d. Registers e. None of the Above 22. A CPU will always check which of the following memory locations first to find data not currently present in registers? a. L1 Cache b. Main Memory c. Secondary Storage d. The CPU randomly chooses which memory location to check first e. None of the Above 23. When a requested data item is available in a given level of the memory hierarchy when the CPU searches for it, it is called a: a. Hit b. Strike c. Miss d. Page Fault e. None of the Above 24. A Direct Mapped Cache system that has 16 blocks of main memory and 4 blocks of cache.

If memory block 13 is in residence in cache, which of the following memory blocks will also be in cache? a. 9 b. 10 c. 3 d. 15 e. All of the Above 25. Which of the following attempts to be the most efficient use of limited cache resources? a. Direct Mapped b. Fully Associative Mapped c. Set Associative Mapped d. Indirect Mapped e. None of the Above 26. When a block of memory needs to be removed from the current level of memory hierarchy it is referred to as the: a. Dirty Block b. Block to be Removed c. Expendable Block d. Victim Block e. None of the Above 27. When a block of data is written to in Level 1 Cache and simultaneously rites the update to Level 2 Cache, it is called: a. Write-Back b. Write-Through c. Write-Around d. Copyback e. None of the Above 28. A hard disk is typically accessed using which of the following? a. DMA & Character I/O b. DMA & Block I/O c. Channel & Character I/O d. Interrupt & Block I/O e. None of the Above 29. What is the smallest unit of data that can be retrieved from a hard disk and sent to main memory? a. Zone b. Byte c. Track d. Block e. All of the Above 30. The RAID process by which consecutive blocks of data are written across different physical disks is called: a. Mirroring b. Parity c.

Slotting d. Striping e. None of the Above 31. The RAID process by which exact copies of blocks of data are written across different physical disks is called: a. Mirroring b. Parity c. Slotting d. Striping e. None of the Above 32. What is the term that describes when the CPU stops executing one process before all required instructions are complete and then begin executing another process? a. Timesharing b. SPOOLing c. Batch Processing d. Context Switch e. None of the Above 33. Another term for multiprogramming is: a. Multispooled b. Multiprocessor c. Complex State Transitioning d. Multithreaded e.

None of the Above 34. Which of the following is responsible for providing the foundational interaction with the system devices for input and output? a. CMOS b. DOS c. BIOS d. CPU e. None of the Above 35. The special, reserved sector on a hard drive that stores the information to bootstrap the operating system is called the _______? a. CMOS b. DOS c. Master Boot Record d. BIOS e. None of the Above 36. Which of the following programming languages requires the largest number of CPU instructions to execute a single program command? a. 1st Generation Languages b. 2nd Generation Languages c. 3rd Generation Languages . 4th Generation Languages e. 5th Generation Languages 37. An operating system is the most popular type of: a. GUI b. Kernel c. System Software d. Tightly Coupled Multiprocessor e. None of the Above 38. Which of the following OS components is directly responsible for interaction with the system hardware? a. Command Line b. Applications c. Service Layer d. Kernel e. None of the Above 39. Which of the following OS components is directly responsible for processing and responding to text-based input from a user? a. Command Layer b. Applications c. Service Layer d. Kernel e. None of the Above 40.

What is the technology that largely replaced text-driven, command-based interaction with the operating system? a. BIOS b. DOS c. GUI d. System Software e. None of the Above 41. Which of the following describes the average results that also consider the expected frequency of occurrence of possible outcomes? a. Arithmetic Mean b. Weighted Arithmetic Mean c. Central Tendency Theorem d. Trigonometric Mean e. None of the Above 42. Which of the following is the most common network architecture today? a. Ring b. Star c. Bus d. Mesh e. None of the Above 43. The network used today that is the combination of DARPANet and NSFNet is called: a.

Supernet b. Internet c. CombiNet d. SkyNet e. None of the Above 44. Which of the following models is the de facto standard for current network communications? a. OSI b. SNA c. TCP/IP d. DEC e. None of the Above 45. What is the most widely used internetwork layer addressing protocol on the Internet? a. IPv4 b. IPv6 c. TCPv4 d. TCPv6 e. None of the Above 46. Which of the following network devices segments a single network into multiple parts (4 or more) and uses Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) addresses to determine if a frame should be forwarded to another segment? a. Repeater b. Hub c.

Bridge d. Switch e. Router 47. Which of the following groups is responsible for drafting and approving updates to TCP/IP protocols? a. W3C – World Wide Web Consortium b. IEEE – Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers c. IETF – Internet Engineering Task Force d. ACM – Association of Computer Machinery e. ISO – International Standards Organization 48. Which of the following groups is responsible for drafting and approving Ethernet standards? a. W3C – World Wide Web Consortium b. IEEE – Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers c. IETF – Internet Engineering Task Force . ACM – Association of Computer Machinery e. ISO – International Standards Organization 49. Which of the following transmission media are nearly invulnerable to electromagnetic and radio frequency interference? a. Coaxial Cable b. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable c. Radio Frequencies d. Fiber Optics e. All of the Above 50. An IP address and TCP port number form a(n) ________. a. URL b. Socket c. Connection Identifier d. All of the Above e. None of the Above 51. A(n) _____ contains a protocol, Internet host, port, and resource path? a. Uniform Resource Address b. Uniform Resource List c.

Uniform Resource Allocation d. Uniform Resource Location e. All of the Above 52. When multiple elements are part of a single logical grouping, it’s appropriate to use the ____ selector to target them for formatting. a. Class b. ID c. Child d. Type e. None of the Above 53. An element is made up of ____________? a. Opening and Closing Tags b. Attributes c. Opening Tag, Closing Tag, and Attributes d. Opening Tag, Closing Tag, and Optional Content e. None of the Above 54. When using the CSS box model, content is configured with the following CSS declaration block. How wide, in pixels, is the resulting box? idth:250px; padding:10px; border:5px solid black; margin:5px; a. 250 b. 280 c. 290 d. 300 e. None of the Above 55. Referencing an external CSS file uses the ____ element. a. href b. link c. rel d. type e. None of the Above 56. Style follows a strict order of precedence to resolve conflicts. The order of precedence, from highest priority to lowest priority is ____. a. Internal, Inline, External, Browser Default b. Inline, External, Internal, Browser Default c. Inline, Internal, External, Browser Default d. Browser Default, External, Internal, Inline e. None of the Above 57.

In HTML, which character is used to indicate a closing tag? a. * b. % c. d. / e. None of the Above 58. The tag is similar in formatting to ____. a. Italic b. Bold c. Underline d. Heading 1 e. None of the Above 59. The tag is similar in formatting to ____. a. Italic b. Bold c. Underline d. Heading 1 e. None of the Above 60. Which of the following is NOT valid XHTML? a. b. c. d. e. All of the Above are valid XHTML 61. What level of XHTML validation eliminates support for the element? a. XHTML 1. 0 Introductory b. XHTML 1. 0 Frameset c. XHTML 1. 0 Transitional d. XHTML 1. 0 Strict . None of the Above 62. The model that is dynamically built by the browser every time a webpage is loaded that defines the structure of each element and object on the page is called _________ a. SEM – Structure of Elements Model b. EOM – Element Object Model c. PSM – Page Structure Model d. DOM – Document Object Model e. None of the Above 63. An XML document MUST begin with which of the following? a. b. c. b {color:green} What color is this text? a. Red b. Blue c. Green d. Browser Default e. None of the Above 69. Using the following markup, what color will the word “color” be? ,b {color:blue} What color is this text? a. Red b. Blue c. Green d. Browser Default e. None of the Above 70. Which of the following is the preferred method of formatting and displaying XML content as a webpage? a. A browser will render XML by default b. CSS c. XSLT d. XML modifiers e. None of the Above Matching (1 point each) 71. Can be embedded or external a. HTML 72. Requires the use of a either strict, transitional, or frameset DTD 73. Provides the structure of a web document 74. Enables data portability b. XHTML c. CSS d. XML e. XSLT 75. Translates XML into HTML or other usable output