First Aid Midterm

First Aid Midterm

The leading cause of death in children and young adults is:
injuries
Who primarily benefits from first aid training?
oneself
First aid is intended to:
provide temporary assistance until proper medical care, if needed, is obtained
Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between:
life and death, rapid recovery and long hospitalization, temporary disability and permanent injury
(All of the above)
Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is:
responsive, mentally competent, an adult (All of the above)
If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as:
implied consent
Which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid?
consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult
In cases of psychiatric emergencies, who has authority to restrain and transport a person against the person’s will?
police officer
A first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over. Failure to do so would be considered:
abandonment
Deviating from accepted standards of care that result in further injury to the victim is known as:
negligence
Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in:
negligence
Which statement concerning duty to act is correct?
duty to act occurs when employment requires it, duty to act occurs when a preexisting relationship exists, duty to act following guidelines for standards of care (All of the above)
Which occupation has a job description designating the person to give first aid?
law enforcement officer, park ranger, lifeguard (All of the above)
A first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would provide, commits:
breach of duty
Failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as:
an act of omission
Good Samaritan laws granting immunity are generally applicable when the rescuer is?
acting in good faith, acting during an emergency, not guilty of malicious conduct (All of the above)
Doing something that a reasonably prudent person would not do under the same or similar circumstances is known as:
Act of Commission
Touching a person or providing first aid without consent is known as:
Battery
An assumed consent given by an unconscious adult when emergency lifesaving treatment is required is known as:
Implied Consent
Immediate care given to an injured or suddenly ill person is known as:
First Aid
People who are designated as first aiders by their employers must give first aid to injured employees while on the job.
True
First Aiders who help injured victims are rarely sued.
True
You are required to provide first aid to any injured or suddenly ill person you encounter.
False
Who usually recognizes a situation as an emergency, and intervenes to help the victim?
a bystander
Who is the most important link between the emergency medical service (EMS) and the victim?
bystanders
Why are bystanders less likely to offer help when an emergency occurs in a public place?
lack of knowledge, confusion about what is an emergency, characteristics of the emergency (All of the above)
A bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ____ to help than a bystander who arrives after the event.
more likely
What is the first action a bystander should take in an emergency?
recognize the emergency
Severity, physical distance, relationship, and time exposed are all factors that can help the bystander:
recognize the emergency
Refusing to acknowledge an emergency is a strategy that can interfere with which emergency action
deciding to help.
When should a bystander decide whether to help at an emergency?
before encountering an emergency
Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency?
fear of a lawsuit, fear of contacting a disease, the sight of blood, vomit, or injury (All of the above)
Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency?
fear of being injured, uncertainty of what to do for the victim, other bystanders are at the scene (All of the above)
Desensitization relates to:
overcoming anxieties caused by unpleasant sights and sounds
What should the rescuer look for during the scene size-up?
hazards that could be dangerous to the rescuer, the victim(s), or bystanders, the mechanism or cause of injury/illness, the number of victims (All of the above)
EMS personnel should definitely be summoned in which instance?
uncontrolled bleeding, breathing difficulty, coughing or vomiting blood (All of the above)
EMS personnel should definitely be called for:
chest pain lasting longer than 2 minutes
In a serious situation, who should you call first?
EMS
What information will you need to provide to the EMS dispatcher?
the victim’s location, the victim’s condition, your name and phone number (All of the above)
Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens?
Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV (All of the above)
What is the best defense against hepatitis B?
wearing gloves while providing first aid
A vaccine is available for:
Hepatitis B
Bloodborne diseases are most commonly transmitted by:
blood, vaginal secretions, semen (All of the above)
The most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against bloodborne pathogens is:
gloves
The grieving process has ____ stages.
5
The first stage of grieving is ____.
denial
The second stage of grieving is ____.
anger
The third stage of grieving is ____.
bargaining
The fourth stage of grieving is ____.
depression
The fifth stage of grieving is ____.
acceptance
The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by denial.
first
The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by bargaining.
third
The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by sadness and despair.
fourth
The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by acceptance.
fifth
The first aider should leave the confirmation of death to:
a physician
If the oxygen supply of the body is cut off, death will occur in about ____ to ____ minutes.
four to six
The pharynx is also known as the ____.
throat
Which organ functions as the passageway for both food and air?
pharynx
Which organ carries food to the stomach?
esophagus
Which organ is the passageway for air to travel into the lungs?
trachea
Food or liquid can enter the trachea by mistake when the ____ fails to close.
epiglottis
The voice box is also known as the ____.
larynx
The average rate of breathing in an adult at rest is ___ to ___ respirations per minute.
twelve to twenty
The average rate of breathing in a child at rest is ___ to ___ respirations per minute.
fifteen to thirty
Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing?
a. an abnormal breathing rate, pale or blue-gray skin, cool and clammy skin (All of the above)
The normal heart rate for children is ____ to ____ beats per minute.
80 to 100
The normal heart rate for adults is ____ to ____ beats per minute.
60 to 100
The normal heart rate for toddlers is ____ to ____ beats per minute.
100 to 120
The normal heart rate for newborns is ____ to ____ beats per minute.
120 to 140
Which blood vessels carry blood back to the heart?
veins
Which of the following is the major artery of the neck?
carotid
Which artery should be used to check the pulse of an unconscious victim?
carotid
Which of the following is the major artery of the upper arm?
brachial
Which of the following arteries should be used to check the pulse of an infant?
brachial
What transports food materials to the body cells and waste materials to organs for elimination?
plasma
Which portion of blood carries oxygen to the organs?
red blood cells
Hemorrhage is the term for:
profuse bleeding
Shock is the inadequate circulation of ____ through an organ or structure.
blood
The adult skeleton has ____ bones.
206
A person with a back or neck injury must be handled with extreme care to prevent injury to the:
spinal cord
The thorax is another name for the ____.
rib cage
The flat, narrow bone in the middle of the front wall of the chest is known as:
the sternum
The lowest part of the sternum is called the:
xiphoid process
The collar bone is also known as the:
clavicle
The shoulder blade is also known as the ____.
scapula
The two bones of the forearm are the:
radius and ulna
A joint is where two or more ____ meet or join.
bones
What holds the bones of a joint in place?
ligaments
What is the purpose of skin?
to protect against bacteria invasion, to help regulate body temperature, to act as a sensory organ (All of the above)
Which portion of blood defends against bacteria?
white blood cells
To find out what’s wrong with the victim, use the logical, systematic format known as ____.
victim assessment
Which of the following is the first step in victim assessment?
primary check
The goal of the victim assessment is to:
quickly identify life-threats
If the primary check uncovers an obstructed airway or massive bleeding, the first aider should attend to those problems:
immediately
What is the purpose of the primary check?
to find and take action to treat life-threatening conditions
A victim’s level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the ____ scale.
AVPU
The “A” in AVPU stands for:
alert
The “U” in AVPU stands for:
unresponsive to any stimulus
Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?
head-tilt/chin-lift
To check for breathing in an unresponsive victim, you should:
look for the chest to rise and fall, listen for normal or abnormal breath sounds, feel for adequate air movement (All of the above)
If an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:
begin CPR
If the unresponsive victim is breathing, the best position for the victim is:
on the left side
Which of the following should be checked when assessing the victim’s skin condition?
skin color, skin temperature, skin moisture (All of the above)
When the skin’s blood vessels constrict or the heart rate slows, the skin becomes:
cool and pale
To check the victim’s skin temperature, put the back of your hand on the victim’s:
forehead
Squeezing the victim’s fingers and toes is done when checking the victim for:
spinal injury
The secondary check on an adult should be started at the victim’s:
head
The mnemonic DOTS can help you remember:
the signs and symptoms of injury
The “D” in DOTS stands for:
deformity
The “O” in DOTS stands for:
open wound
Using the mnemonic ____ can help you collect the victim’s history.
SAMPLE
Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is:
a sign
Which of the following is a sign?
moist skin
Something that the victim tells the first aider about is:
a symptom
Which of the following is a symptom?
nausea
The “S” in SAMPLE stands for:
signs and symptoms
The “P” in SAMPLE stands for:
preexisting conditions
The “L” in SAMPLE stands for:
last oral intake
The “E” in SAMPLE stands for:
events leading to the injury or illness
Medical identification tags can help the first aider identify
allergies, medications, medical history (All of the above)
While waiting for an ambulance, the primary check should be repeated every ____ minutes for an unresponsive victim.
5
Why should an unresponsive victim be placed on the side?
it delays vomiting by placing the esophagus above the stomach
What is the most prominent medical emergency in the United States?
heart attack
Besides heart attack victims, CPR can also save victims of:
drowning, drug overdose, suffocation (All of the above)
The first step in performing adult basic life support is to:
check victim’s responsiveness
What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive person?
the tounge
Place an unresponsive breathing victim ____.
on their left side (Recovery Position)
If an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:
activate the EMS immediately
If the victim’s mouth is severely injured, the first aider should:
give rescue breaths by the mouth-to-nose method
CPR by a lay person is needed:
when the victim is not breathing
During CPR, the rescuer gives:
chest compressions and rescue breathing
The simplest method to check responsiveness of a victim is to:
tap the shoulder and shout “Are you okay?”
If alone with an unresponsive adult victim, the rescuer should:
activate EMS immediately
If alone with an unresponsive child or infant victim, the rescuer should:
provide care for 2 minutes, then activate the EMS system
How would you turn an unresponsive victim over?
Unknown
Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?
head-tilt/chin-lift
The links included in the cardiac chain of survival include:
recognition and action, CPR and defibrillation, advanced care and post arrest care (All of the above)
________ occurs when heart muscle tissue dies because its blood supply is severely reduced or stopped.
Heart attack
The proper sequence for CPR is:
CAB
How many initial rescue breaths should the first aider give?
2
When performing a rescue breath, the first aider should blow:
slowly, until the chest rises
When giving rescue breaths to an adult, each breath should last approximately?
1 second
If the first rescue breath does not go in, the first aider should:
reposition the victim’s head and try a second breath
When giving rescue breaths to a child, each breath should last approximately ____.
1 second
When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the hands are placed:
Unknown
When performing adult CPR, how many compressions should be given?
30
When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the sternum should be depressed:
2 inches (5 cm)
The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing adult CPR is:
30 compressions and 2 breaths
After starting CPR on an adult victim, perform ____ cycles and then stop and check the victim.
5
At what point would you stop performing adult CPR and check for circulation?
Unknown
When performing CPR on a child victim, give ____ breath(s) after every 30 compressions.
2
When performing chest compressions on a child, the sternum should be depressed:
2 inches
When would you stop giving CPR?
when the victim starts breathing on his or her own, when trained help arrives and relieves you, when you are completely exhausted (All of the above)
If the choking victim is unable to speak, breathe, or cough, they are experiencing a:
complete airway obstruction
Infants are those who are:
younger than 1 year of age
A child’s age ranges from:
1 to puberty
Adults include those who are:
at puberty or older
When should a blind finger sweep be performed by a lay person to remove an object on a choking victim?
Unknown
What is the first step when assisting a victim with a suspected airway obstruction?
“Can you speak?”
How many abdominal thrusts should be given to a responsive choking victim?
as many as are needed to remove the obstruction or until the victim becomes unresponsive
When giving abdominal thrusts to a choking victim, where should you position your hands?
in the middle of the abdomen
When giving abdominal thrusts, which part of the fist is placed against the victim’s abdomen?
thumb side
Repeat abdominal thrusts until:
victim coughs up object, victim starts to breathe or cough forcefully, victim becomes unresponsive (All of the above)
If the 2 initial breaths do not go in to the victim:
retilt the head and try the breaths again
If alone with an unresponsive child, the rescuer should:
perform first aid for 2 minutes, then activate EMS
When giving a child rescue breaths, the breaths should last:
1 second
When performing child CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:
about 100 compressions per minute
The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person child CPR is:
30 compressions and 2 breaths
When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should:
form an airtight seal around the infant’s mouth and nose
When giving an infant rescue breaths, the breaths should last:
1 second
When giving chest compressions to an infant, place two fingers:
on the center of the chest, just below the nipple line
When performing infant CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:
at least 100 compressions per minute
When performing chest compressions on an infant, the sternum should be depressed:
1 1/2 inches (4 cm)
The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person infant CPR is:
30 compressions and two breaths
During infant CPR, at what point would you stop performing CPR and check breathing?
after you have completed 5 cycles
Responsive choking in infants is managed through a sequence of:
back blows, chest thrusts
How many back blows and chest thrusts should be given to a responsive choking infant?
5 each
AEDs can be used on:
infants, children, adults (All of the above)
A victim’s chance of survival dramatically improves through:
early CPR, early defibrillation (Both A and B)
Which is the most common abnormal heart rhythm in cases of sudden cardiac arrest in adults?
Ventricular fibrillation
During ventricular fibrillation, the heart:
quivers and cannot pump blood
When the heart stops beating,
blood carrying oxygen becomes unavailable to the entire body.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):
is the initial care for cardiac arrest until a defibrillator is available
An AED can:
analyze the heart’s rhythm, deliver an electrical shock, be used by trained lay persons (All of the above)
How many adhesive pads (electrodes) are placed on the victim’s chest?
Two
Which one of the following statements about AEDs is true?
An AED is only to be used on a victim whose heart has stopped beating.
Which of the following statements about AEDs is true?
The AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest.
Verify no one is in contact with the victim:
during analysis, during the shock (Both A and B)
Before using an AED:
give CPR until the AED is ready to be used, position it next to the victim, turn the AED on (All of the above)
Place the AED pads:
where the diagram or illustration on the AED indicates.
While the AED analyzes the victim’s heart rhythm:
do not touch the victim.
Which of the following statements about AEDs is true?
Remove patches containing medication (e.g., nitroglycerin, nicotine).
Shock refers to the failure of what system?
circulatory
Shock occurs when body parts do not receive adequate:
oxygenated blood
Without oxygen, the brain will start to be irreparably damaged in ____ to ____ minutes.
4 to 6
Hypovolemic shock results from:
the loss of a significant amount of fluid
Neurogenic shock results from:
damage to the nervous system
Septic shock develops in some victims with:
bacterial infection
When a person experiences shock, their skin is usually:
moist
Victims of shock usually experience the following altered mental status:
anxiety and restlessness
Which of the following statements concerning shock is correct?
a first aider can prevent shock from worsening
A shock victim who is unresponsive should be placed:
on the side
A shock victim in the advanced stages of pregnancy should be placed:
on their left side
Why is neither food nor drink given to a shock victim?
it could cause vomiting
Anaphylactic shock:
is a massive allergic reaction
Sensitive persons may experience anaphylaxis from exposure to:
medications, foods, insect stings (All of the above)
First aid for anaphylactic shock would include which of the following?
emergency transport to a medical facility, transporting the victim in a half-sitting position, determining if the victim has an emergency epinephrine kit (All of the above)
Rapid blood loss of ____ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death.
1
How much blood loss is extremely dangerous for a child?
one pint
In ____ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound.
arterial
Blood from ____ flows steadily or gushes.
veins
What type of bleeding is the most common, is usually not serious, and is easily controlled?
capillary
Quite often, ____ bleeding will clot off by itself.
capillary
When arteries are completely severed:
they are more likely to constrict and slow the bleeding
Clotting time is ____ when the victim is taking aspirin or is anemic.
longer
The first method used to control external bleeding should be:
direct pressure
If a dressing becomes blood-soaked, what should be done?
apply another dressing on top of the old one
If direct pressure and elevation fail to control bleeding, the next step would be to:
apply direct pressure over the wound, and pressure at a pressure point
When direct pressure cannot be applied, such as in the case of a protruding bone, bleeding should be controlled by using:
doughnut-shaped pads (indirect pressure)
Tourniquets are rarely used because:
they are rarely needed, they can damage nerves and blood vessels, they may cause the loss of an arm or let (All of the above)
Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding?
bruises of the skin, fractured ribs or bruises on the chest, vomiting or coughing up blood (All of the above)
What should be done when caring for a victim of severe internal bleeding?
monitor breathing, treat for shock, seek immediate medical care (All of the above)
Which wound results in skin cut with jagged, irregular edges?
laceration
Which wound is smooth-edged?
incision
Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?
puncture
Which wound involves the cutting or tearing off of a body part?
amputation
For a shallow wound, wash inside it with:
soap and water
The best way to irrigate a wound is by:
letting water from a faucet rapidly pour into the wound
How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?
they should only be cleaned by emergency department personnel
What can safely be put on shallow wounds?
antibiotic ointments, such as Neosporin
Which of the following should be used to irrigate a wound?
None of the above
Which first aid supply is applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent contamination?
dressing
What are the signs and symptoms of an infected wound?
throbbing pain, pus discharge, fever (All of the above)
Which of the following are appropriate home treatments for the early stages of infection?
antibiotic ointment, elevation, soaking the wound
Tetanus is caused by:
a toxin produced by a bacteria
Where is the tetanus bacteria commonly found?
soil, street dust, pet feces (All of the above)
A victim with a dirty wound who has not had a tetanus booster for over ____ years should receive a booster.
5
Tetanus shots must be given within ____ hours of the injury to be effective.
72
What percentage of amputated extremities can be successfully replanted?
80 to 90
What type of amputation occurs when the skin is peeled off?
degloving
Which type of amputation is the most common?
crushing
The first step in controlling bleeding from an amputation is:
applying direct pressure
How should an amputated body part be cared for?
do not clean the amputated part
The clean amputated part should be wrapped in:
a dry, sterile dressing
The cleaned, wrapped amputated part should be:
placed in a plastic bag
The bag/container with the wrapped amputated part should be:
placed on a bed of ice
What tends to have smooth edges and resemble a surgical or paper cut?
incision
After a blister forms, what should you try first?
cover the blister with moleskin cut into the shape of a doughnut
What is the proper procedure for breaking a blister?
drain he fluid by making a small hole at the blister’s edge
Once a blister has been opened, a protective bandage should be worn for ____ to ____ days, or until new skin forms.
10 to 14
The only time an impaled object can safely be removed is:
when it is stuck in the cheek
If an object is impaled in the eye, the most important point for a first aider to remember is to:
never apply pressure to the eye
Under what circumstances would you leave an embedded fishhook in place?
if the victim is uncooperative, if removing it would injure a nearby body part, if removing it would injure an underlying structure (All of the above)
A clot of blood under the skin is called a:
hematoma
Control bleeding in a closed wound by:
applying an ice pack
What steps should be taken to care for a closed wound?
control bleeding, apply an elastic bandage, elevate an injured extremity if appropriate (All of the above)
Which closed wounds always require medical care?
internal bleeding
Stitches should be made by a physician within ____ to ____ hours of the injury.
6 to 8
Which of the following are advantages of stitching wounds?
the wound heals faster, it reduces infection, it lessens scarring (All of the above)
Which of the following wounds usually require stitches?
if the cut is more than 1 inch long and is deep
When should you close a gaping wound with butterfly bandages?
a gaping wound should not be closed
What does first aid for gunshot wounds involve?
checking breathing, controlling bleeding with direct pressure, treating for shock (All of the above)
Which of the following would be placed directly over an open wound?
gauze pads
Which type of dressing is useful for small wounds?
gauze pads, adhesive strips (A and B)
Which type of dressing is used for small cuts and abrasions, and are a combination of both a sterile dressing and a bandage?
adhesive strips
What type of dressing is made of large, thick absorbent sterile materials?
trama dressings
What is the purpose of a dressing?
to control bleeding, to prevent infection, to absorb blood (All of the above)
Which of the following would be used as a dressing?
gauze pads
An example of an improvised dressing would be:
a handkerchief, a towel, a cloth (All of the above)
When applying a sterile dressing, be sure not to:
cough on the wound, breathe on the wound, talk over the wound (All of the above)
What is the purpose of a bandage?
to hold a dressing in place, to prevent contamination, to absorb blood (All of the above)
A roller bandage should be started:
Unknown
Which of the following would be signs that a bandage is too tight?
blue or pale skin color, coldness of the extremity, tingling of the extremity (All of the above)
The most appropriate bandage for sprains and contusions would be:
an elastic roller bandage
Which bandage would be most appropriate for use as a sling?
triangular bandage
Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to cover a wound of the leg?
spiral method
Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to provide compression at or near a joint?
figure-8 method
Deaths and complications increase dramatically for burn victims from which age group?
older than 55 years
At what point does skin death and injury occur?
about 113 degrees
An important fact related to chemical burns is:
the burning process will continue until the chemical is removed
Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer would be considered:
second-degree (partial-thickness)
Burns that penetrate all the skin layers into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:
third-degree (full-thickness)
A second-degree burn is also described as ____.
partial-thickness
A third-degree burn is also described as ____.
full-thickness
Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?
second-degree (partial-thickness)
Which type of burn requires removal of dead tissue and a skin graft to heal properly?
third-degree (full-thickness)
The first step in helping a burn victim is to:
stop the burning
Hot, burned, or smoldering clothing should be removed:
once the fire is dead
The quick method of assessing the extent of a burn is known as:
rule of nines
According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of an adult’s body surface is involved if both legs are burned?
36
Under what circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim?
for all moderate burns, for all severe burns, if the burn is accompanied by another injury (All of the above)
A second-degree burn that covers from 15 to 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ____ burn.
moderate
A second-degree burn that covers more than 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ____ burn.
critical
Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of an adult’s body surface.
20
Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of a child’s body surface.
10
When should a dressing be applied to a first-degree burn?
almost never
The pain and inflammation from a burn can be relieved by taking:
Unknown
Ointments, grease, butter, cream, or home remedies are not applied to a burn because:
they may hold heat in, they are unsterile, they may lead to infection (All of the above)
Generally, burn dressings are changed ____ a day.
once of twice
Scald burns are the result of contact with:
hot liquid
What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?
brush off the substance then flush with water
When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least ____ minutes.
twenty
In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should examine the wound for:
exposed skull bone, exposed brain, indentation of the skull (All of the above)
How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?
apply pressure around the edges of the wound
Clear or pink watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear is a sign of:
skull fracture
First aid for a victim of an open skull fracture includes:
stabilizing the neck against movement
Which type of brain injury is a bruising of brain tissue?
contusion
Which type of brain injury causes a temporary loss of brain function, usually without permanent damage?
concussion
Which is the most serious type of brain injury?
hematoma
What is the most frequent type of eye injury?
loose objects in the eye
How can blunt force trauma cause death?
it can ultimately cause cessation of breathing
Which of the following signs of head injury can appear within 48 hours and indicate a need for medical care?
vision problems, slurred speech (Both A and B)
A head-injury victim who fails short-term memory tests probably has:
concussion
A first aider should suspect that all unresponsive victims of head injury also have:
spine injury
To stabilize the head and neck of a head-injury victim, the victim should first be placed in what position?
in the position you found them
First aid for a victim of head injury includes:
stabilizing the neck against movement
If the victim with head injury vomits, you should:
roll the victim onto his or her side while stabilizing the neck
What mnemonic can be used to assess and describe a head-injury victim’s mental status?
AVPU
Following a head injury, should the victim be allowed to sleep?
let the victim sleep, but wake him/her every 2 hours
You should seek medical attention if the head-injury victim develops which of the following signs and symptoms within 48 hours of the injury:
slurred speech, seizures, “seeing double” (All of the above)
What first aid should be given to a victim with a penetrating eye injury?
protect the injured eye to prevent deeper penetration, stabilize an impaled object, cover the undamaged eye (All of the above)
How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?
bandage both eyes lightly
For chemical burns of the eye, flush the eye continuously for at least:
20 minutes
What can you do to remove a live insect from the ear canal?
shine a light into the ear, place several drops of mineral or vegetable oil into the ear (Both of the above)
With proper treatment, more than ____ percent of knocked-out teeth can be saved.
Unknown
A tooth often can be successfully reimplanted if it has been put back into its socket within ____ minutes after the injury.
30
About ____ to ____ percent of head-injury victims also have a spine injury.
15 to 20
Which type of spinal injury radiates pain around the ribs?
upper-back
Which type of spinal injury radiates pain to the arms?
neck
Which type of spinal injury radiates pain down the legs?
lower-back
To check for spine injury in an unresponsive victim:
pinch the victim’s hands and feet
Proper first aid for a victim with spinal cord injury is:
checking and monitoring breathing, notifying the EMS, stabilizing the victim against any movement (All of the above)